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Exam 3 Study Questions



Multiple Choice

Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

1. 

All living organisms

a.

generate ATP.

b.

utilize oxygen.

c.

have a well-defined nucleus.

d.

produce carbon dioxide.

e.

generate ATP and produce carbon dioxide.

 

2. 

When molecules are broken apart in respiration,

a.

the heat produced is used to drive biological reactions.

b.

the oxygen in the compounds that are broken apart is used as an energy source.

c.

the energy released in respiration is channeled into molecules of ATP.

d.

ATP is converted into ADP.

e.

ADP is released as a waste product.

 

3. 

Cellular respiration

a.

is the mechanism that evolved to enable living organisms to utilize energy stored in glucose.

b.

occurs only in animal cells because plants carry on photosynthesis.

c.

utilizes fat as its primary energy source.

d.

occurs at the same rate throughout all cells of the body.

e.

is the only cellular mechanism that yields ATP.

 

4. 

ATP is

a.

the energy currency of a cell.

b.

produced by the destruction of ADP.

c.

expended in the process of photosynthesis.

d.

produced during the phosphorylation of any organic compound.

e.

none of these

 

5. 

ATP

a.

can be produced by photosynthesis.

b.

is produced in the degradation of organic compounds such as glucose.

c.

is generated in anaerobic respiration.

d.

is released in aerobic respiration.

e.

all of these

 

6. 

The correct operational sequence of the three processes listed below is:


      I. glycolysis

     II. ETP

    III. Krebs

a.

I >>> II >>> III

b.

II >>> I >>> III

c.

III >>> I >>> II

d.

II >>> III >>> I

e.

I >>> III >>> II

 

7. 

For glycolysis to begin,

a.

glucose must enter the mitochondria.

b.

there must be an input of energy from ATP.

c.

oxygen must be available.

d.

some hydrogen acceptors must be available.

e.

none of these

 

8. 

Glycolysis

a.

occurs in the mitochondria.

b.

happens to glucose only.

c.

results in the production of pyruvate.

d.

occurs in the cytoplasm.

e.

results in the production of pyruvate and occurs in the cytoplasm.

 

9. 

How many ATP molecules (net yield) are produced per molecule of glucose degraded during glycolysis?

a.

1

b.

2

c.

4

d.

36

e.

38

 

10. 

Because __________ cells have a NAD+ shuttle built into their mitochondria, they deliver 38 ATP molecules per glucose molecule.

a.

liver

b.

heart

c.

kidney

d.

liver and heart

e.

liver, heart, and kidney

 

11. 

The greatest number of ATP molecules is produced in

a.

glycolysis.

b.

alcoholic fermentation.

c.

anaerobic electron transport.

d.

electron transport phosphorylation.

e.

the Krebs cycle.

 

12. 

Fermentation

a.

may occur in a muscle under anaerobic conditions.

b.

produces more ATP than is liberated in the hydrogen transfer series.

c.

breaks down glucose in reaction with oxygen.

d.

is restricted to yeasts.

e.

none of these

 

13. 

If you were searching for anaerobic bacteria, you would NOT look for them in

a.

the guts of farm animals.

b.

swamps.

c.

mountain streams.

d.

sediments of lakes and oceans.

e.

canned goods.

 

14. 

When a cell undergoes mitosis,

a.

the daughter cells have identical genes.

b.

the daughter cell has genes identical to those of the mother cell that produced it.

c.

the amount of cytoplasm in the mother cell and in each of the daughter cells is equal.

d.

there is an exact duplication and division of all of the organelles between daughter cells.

e.

the daughter cells have identical genes and the daughter cell has genes identical to those of the mother cell that produced it.

 

15. 

Strictly speaking, mitosis and meiosis are divisions of the

a.

nucleus.

b.

cytoplasm.

c.

chromosomes.

d.

nucleus and chromosomes.

e.

nucleus, cytoplasm, and chromosomes.

 

16. 

Which of the following is NOT associated with meiosis?

a.

reduction of number of chromosomes

b.

somatic cells

c.

sexual reproduction

d.

sperm and egg

e.

germ cells

 

17. 

Chromatids that are attached at the centromere are called what kind of chromatids?

a.

mother

b.

daughter

c.

sister

d.

programmed

e.

either mother or daughter.

 

18. 

In mitosis, if a parent cell has 16 chromosomes, each daughter cell will have how many chromosomes?

a.

64

b.

32

c.

16

d.

8

e.

4

 

19. 

Cells with two of each kind of chromosome are described by the term

a.

polyploid.

b.

diploid.

c.

triploid.

d.

haploid.

e.

tetraploid.

 

20. 

The chromosomes and genes are actually replicated during

a.

anaphase.

b.

metaphase.

c.

interphase.

d.

prophase.

e.

telophase.

 

21. 

The spindle apparatus is made of

a.

Golgi bodies.

b.

microtubules.

c.

endoplasmic reticulum.

d.

nucleoprotein.

e.

chromatids.

 

22. 

The chromosomes are aligned at the spindle equator during

a.

anaphase.

b.

metaphase.

c.

interphase.

d.

prophase.

e.

telophase.

 

23. 

The chromatids detach from one another and become visibly separate chromosomes during

a.

anaphase.

b.

metaphase.

c.

interphase.

d.

prophase.

e.

telophase.

 

24. 

The chromosomes have arrived at opposite poles during

a.

anaphase.

b.

metaphase.

c.

interphase.

d.

prophase.

e.

telophase.

 

25. 

The nuclear membrane re-forms during

a.

anaphase.

b.

metaphase.

c.

interphase.

d.

prophase.

e.

telophase.

 

26. 

Which of the following is the proper sequence for mitosis?


      I. metaphase

    III. prophase

     II. telophase

    IV. anaphase

a.

I, III, IV, II

b.

I, II, III, IV

c.

III, I, IV, II

d.

IV, I, III, II

e.

III, IV, I, II

 

27. 

The distribution of cytoplasm to daughter cells is accomplished during

a.

prokaryotic fission.

b.

mitosis.

c.

meiosis.

d.

cytokinesis.

e.

karyokinesis.

 

28. 

Which is NOT a typical site for the occurrence of meiosis?

a.

plant ovary

b.

plant root cells

c.

human testis

d.

human ovary

e.

plant anther

 

29. 

Sexual reproduction

a.

leads to uniform characteristics in a population.

b.

results in new combinations of genetic traits.

c.

produces genetic clones.

d.

requires less tissue differentiation than asexual reproduction.

e.

produces genetic clones and requires less tissue differentiation than asexual reproduction.

 

30. 

Different, or alternative, forms of the same gene are called

a.

genetomorphs.

b.

alleles.

c.

mutants.

d.

chromatids.

e.

homologous.

 

31. 

Homologous chromosomes

a.

may exchange parts during meiosis.

b.

have alleles for the same characteristics even though the gene expression may not be the same.

c.

are in pairs, one chromosome of each pair from the father and one from the mother.

d.

pair up during meiosis.

e.

all of these

 

32. 

Copies of chromosomes linked together at their centromeres at the beginning of meiosis are appropriately called what kind of chromatids?

a.

mother

b.

daughter

c.

sister

d.

homologous

 

33. 

Sister chromatids are separated from each other during

a.

metaphase I.

b.

anaphase I.

c.

telophase II.

d.

anaphase II.

e.

metaphase II.

 

34. 

Synapsis and crossing over occur during

a.

anaphase I.

b.

metaphase II.

c.

prophase I.

d.

prophase II.

e.

telophase II.

 

35. 

Paired homologous chromosomes are found at the spindle equator during

a.

metaphase I.

b.

telophase I.

c.

prophase II.

d.

metaphase II.

e.

anaphase II.

 

36. 

Crossing over

a.

increases variability in gametes.

b.

results in only one exchange per homologue.

c.

occurs between sister chromatids.

d.

prevents genetic recombination.

e.

is followed immediately by separation of each of the chromatids.

 

37. 

The period that may occur between meiosis I and meiosis II is called

a.

cytokinesis.

b.

interkinesis.

c.

synapsis.

d.

reduction division.

e.

karyokinesis.

 

38. 

Meiosis typically results in the production of

a.

two diploid cells.

b.

four diploid cells.

c.

four haploid cells.

d.

two haploid cells.

e.

one triploid cell.

 

39. 

The most accurate description of an organism with genotype AaBb is

a.

homozygous dominant.

b.

heterozygous.

c.

heterozygous dominant.

d.

homozygous recessive.

e.

heterozygous recessive.

 

40. 

Which organism did Mendel utilize to work out the laws of segregation and independent assortment?

a.

the fruit fly

b.

Neurospora

c.

the garden pea

d.

the chicken

e.

E. coli

 

41. 

If R is dominant to r, the offspring of the cross of RR with rr will

a.

be homozygous.

b.

display the same phenotype as the RR parent.

c.

display the same phenotype as the rr parent.

d.

have the same genotype as the RR parent.

e.

have the same genotype as the rr parent.

 

42. 

If tall (D) is dominant to dwarf (d), and two homozygous varieties DD and dd are crossed, then what kind of progeny will be produced?

a.

all intermediate forms

b.

all tall

c.

all dwarf

d.

1/2 tall, 1/2 dwarf

e.

3/4 tall, 1/4 dwarf

 

43. 

In a Punnett square, the letters within the little boxes represent

a.

offspring genotypes.

b.

parental genotypes.

c.

gametes.

d.

offspring phenotypes.

e.

parental phenotypes.

 

44. 

If short hair (L) is dominant to long hair (l), then what fraction of the offspring produced by a cross of Ll x ll will be homozygous dominant?

a.

1/2

b.

1/4

c.

1/3

d.

none (no chance of this offspring)

e.

none of these is correct

 

45. 

A testcross involves

a.

two F1 hybrids.

b.

an F1 hybrid and an F2 offspring.

c.

two parental organisms.

d.

an F1 hybrid and the homozygous dominant parent.

e.

an F1 hybrid and an organism that is homozygous recessive for that trait.

 

46. 

Individuals with the genotype Gg Hh Ii Jj will produce how many different kinds of gametes?

a.

2

b.

4

c.

6

d.

8

e.

16

 

47. 

An individual with a genotype of Aa Bb CC is able to produce how many different kinds of gametes?

a.

2

b.

3

c.

4

d.

7

e.

8

 

48. 

In cocker spaniels, black coat color (B) is dominant over red (b), and solid color (S) is dominant over spotted (s). If a red male was crossed with a black female to produce a red spotted puppy, the genotypes of the parents (with male genotype first) would be

a.

Bb Ss x Bb Ss.

b.

bb Ss x Bb Ss.

c.

bb ss x Bb Ss.

d.

bb Ss x Bb ss.

e.

Bb ss x Bb ss.

 

49. 

In cocker spaniels, black coat color (B) is dominant over red (b), and solid color (S) is dominant over spotted (s). A cross of Bb Ss with bb ss would produce the phenotypic ratio

a.

9:3:3:1.

b.

1:1:1:1.

c.

1:2:1.

d.

3:1.

e.

none of these

 

50. 

If all the offspring of a cross had the genotype Aa Bb, the parents of the cross would most likely be

a.

AA BB x aa bb.

b.

AA bb x aa BB.

c.

Aa Bb x Aa Bb.

d.

Aa bb x aa Bb.

e.

AA BB x aa bb or AA bb x aa BB.

 

51. 

If a child has an AB blood type, the parents

a.

must both have different blood types.

b.

must be A and B, but not AB.

c.

must both be AB.

d.

can be any blood type.

e.

can have different blood types, but neither can be blood type O.

 

52. 

If a child belonged to blood type O, he or she could NOT have been produced by which set of parents?

a.

Type A mother and type B father

b.

Type A mother and type O father

c.

Type AB mother and type O father

d.

Type O mother and type O father

 

53. 

If one parent has type A blood and the other parent has type B, then which of the following is possible in the children?

a.

only AB

b.

A and AB

c.

B and AB

d.

A, B, AB, O

e.

only O

 

54. 

Multiple effects of a single gene is known as

a.

expressivity.

b.

penetrance.

c.

codominance.

d.

pleiotropy.

e.

multiple alleles.

 

55. 

The variation of the color in Siamese cats is due to

a.

incomplete codominance.

b.

inactive X chromosomes.

c.

environmental effects on phenotypes.

d.

quantitative inheritance.

e.

multiple alleles.

 

56. 

The location of a gene on a chromosome is its

a.

centromere.

b.

locus.

c.

autosome.

d.

allele.

e.

none of these

 

57. 

A karyotype

a.

compares one set of chromosomes to another.

b.

is a visual display of chromosomes arranged according to size.

c.

is a photograph of cells undergoing mitosis during anaphase.

d.

of a normal human cell shows 48 chromosomes.

e.

cannot be used to identify individual chromosomes beyond the fact that two chromosomes are homologues.

 

58. 

Karyotyping involves taking pictures of chromosomes during

a.

prophase.

b.

telophase.

c.

metaphase.

d.

interphase.

e.

anaphase.

 

59. 

An X-linked carrier is a

a.

homozygous dominant female.

b.

heterozygous female.

c.

homozygous recessive female.

d.

homozygous male.

e.

heterozygous male.

 

60. 

In a pedigree chart, a male showing the specific trait being studied is indicated by a

a.

darkened square.

b.

clear square.

c.

darkened diamond.

d.

clear triangle.

e.

darkened circle.

 

61. 

If a study of several pedigrees demonstrated that two parents are normal but their children express a trait, then the trait is controlled by a

a.

codominant gene.

b.

simple dominant gene.

c.

recessive gene.

d.

sex-linked gene.

e.

No conclusion can be drawn.

 

62. 

The probability of producing a normal child by two parents who are carriers for an autosomal recessive disorder is

a.

50 percent.

b.

0 percent.

c.

100 percent.

d.

25 percent.

e.

75 percent.

 

63. 

A woman is diagnosed to have the genetic disease known as Huntington's disorder. It is a rare defect caused by an autosomal dominant allele. The chance for any one of her children to inherit the disease is

a.

dependent on the sex of the child.

b.

1/3.

c.

1/2.

d.

3/4.

 

64. 

Males tend to be affected in greater numbers by X-linked recessive genetic disorders than are females because

a.

females have two dominant genes for the disorder.

b.

males have only one recessive gene for the disorder.

c.

males have a double dose of the gene.

d.

Y chromosomes are not as strong as X chromosomes.

 

65. 

A woman heterozygous for color blindness (an X-linked recessive allele) marries a man with normal color vision. What is the probability that their first child will be color blind?

a.

25 percent

b.

50 percent

c.

75 percent

d.

100 percent

e.

none of these

 

66. 

What could the children of a color-blind woman and a man with normal vision be?

a.

All will be color blind.

b.

None will be color blind.

c.

Daughters will be color blind and sons will be normal.

d.

Sons will be color blind and daughters will be normal.

 

67. 

A chromosome's gene sequence that was ABCDEFG before modification and ABCDLMNOP afterward is an example of

a.

inversion.

b.

deletion.

c.

duplication.

d.

translocation.

e.

aneuploidy.

 

68. 

A chromosome that has been broken and rejoined in a reversal sequence has undergone

a.

inversion.

b.

deletion.

c.

duplication.

d.

translocation.

e.

aneuploidy.

 

69. 

The failure of chromosomes to separate during mitosis or meiosis is called

a.

genetic displacement.

b.

trisomy.

c.

crossing over.

d.

nondisjunction.

e.

disjunction.

 

70. 

Which of the following designates a normal human female?

a.

XXY

b.

XY

c.

XX

d.

XYY

e.

XO

 

71. 

The sex chromosome composition of a person with Turner syndrome is

a.

XXX.

b.

XO.

c.

XXY.

d.

XYY.

e.

none of these

 

72. 

Which of the following designates a normal human male?

a.

YY

b.

XX

c.

XY

d.

XO

e.

XYY

 

73. 

Males that tend to be taller than average and show mild mental retardation may be designated

a.

XXY.

b.

XYY.

c.

Turner syndrome.

d.

Down syndrome.

e.

none of these

 


Problem

 

74. 

Color blindness is an X-linked recessive gene. Two normal-visioned parents produce a color-blind child.

a. Is this child male or female?

b. What are the genotypes of the parents?

c. What are the chances that their next child will be a color-blind daughter?

 


Other

 

75. 

Four of the five answers listed below are characteristic of meiosis. Select the exception.

a.

involves two divisions

b.

reduces the number of chromosomes

c.

results in producing genetically identical cells

d.

produces haploid cells

e.

involves synapsis

 




 

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